so i was just thinking about the SCOTUS ruling this past week, and reading commentaries and just doing some other reading. basically, the ruling states that the state of arizona can't "enforce" federal law just because the federal government isn't doing its job. they also can't make their own immigration laws even if they line up with the federal immigration laws, because that's not their role. they are however allowed to conduct immigration checks when they have a person detained for another infraction, just like a warrants record search.
k now on to my point. i know the second amendment isn't "law", but does this court ruling have any impact on a states' jurisdiction on enforcing, creating, or whatever, a law that restricts the keeping and bearing of arms? like here in florida where we don't have a right we have a privilege...
yeah i know, "the second amendment only limits the fed". but didn't the SCOTUS just apply the 2nd to the states? if so, shouldn't that fall under the ruling this week based on the immigration enforcement of a federal law? that's the reason i ask, since it's been applied to the states.
thoughts?
k now on to my point. i know the second amendment isn't "law", but does this court ruling have any impact on a states' jurisdiction on enforcing, creating, or whatever, a law that restricts the keeping and bearing of arms? like here in florida where we don't have a right we have a privilege...
yeah i know, "the second amendment only limits the fed". but didn't the SCOTUS just apply the 2nd to the states? if so, shouldn't that fall under the ruling this week based on the immigration enforcement of a federal law? that's the reason i ask, since it's been applied to the states.
thoughts?