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why would not this idea apply to felons & guns? paid their debt?

davidmcbeth

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http://www.bloomberg.com/news/2013-...-of-criminal-checks-in-hiring.html?cmpid=yhoo

“People who have been convicted of crimes and have paid their ‘debt to society,’ eventually ought to have a fair shot in the job market -- especially if the conviction was years earlier and had nothing to do with the job they seek,” John Rowe, director of the EEOC’s Chicago-area office, said in a statement announcing the lawsuit.
 

skidmark

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Discrimination in employment based on race is prohibited. The argument is that most felons who are discriminated against/merely not hired because of their convicted felon status are also members of a protected class because of the "overwhelming" numbers of convicted felons are members of a certain race. Discrimination in employment based on race is a violation of a fundamental right.

2A rights are not yet fundamental rights and therefore in spite of the fact that the "overwhelming" numbers of convicted felons are members of a certain race, there is not the same need to protect this right as opposed to a fundamental right.

Please be sure you look at the question you posed You asked why the notion would not apply, not whether the notion should or ought to apply.

stay safe.
 

davidmcbeth

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I did not see this as a race issue but one of which a person pays his debt to society and should be able to enjoy life thereafter...
 

Citizen

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I did not see this as a race issue but one of which a person pays his debt to society and should be able to enjoy life thereafter...

As far as I know, the felon-possession thing is relatively recent, either NFA or GCA1968. We went for years in this country letting felons be able to defend themselves after they got out.
 

skidmark

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I did not see this as a race issue but one of which a person pays his debt to society and should be able to enjoy life thereafter...

It really does not matter what you do or do not see. EEOC says it is a race-based issue. So there!

stay safe.
 

Maverick9

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IMO, there are 'felonies' and then there are 'felonies'. A guy who murders three people and gets out after 25years graduating from 'Murder University' (hard time at the state pen) should be allowed to carry? I don't think so.

Violent felonies vs other types - make the distinction and that's OK, I think.
 

WalkingWolf

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IMO, there are 'felonies' and then there are 'felonies'. A guy who murders three people and gets out after 25years graduating from 'Murder University' (hard time at the state pen) should be allowed to carry? I don't think so.

Violent felonies vs other types - make the distinction and that's OK, I think.

Somebody that murders three people should NEVER get out.
 

eye95

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If the are still a danger, don't let them out.

May not be an option.

Again, as I have said dozens of times before, our Constitution allows for the taking of life, Liberty, and property after due process. If the due process results in the loss of the RKBA for life, it is perfectly constitutional.

IMO, we go way overboard in taking away the right. I would rather see a system whereby the loss of the RKBA and the time period for that loss is imposed by the judge rather than by a blanket law. Only violent felons should lose the RKBA. Then, too, there should be a way to use due process to regain the right. However, these are policy issues to be determined by the legislative process. They are not constitutional issues.
 

Citizen

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May not be an option.

Again, as I have said dozens of times before, our Constitution allows for the taking of life, Liberty, and property after due process. If the due process results in the loss of the RKBA for life, it is perfectly constitutional.

IMO, we go way overboard in taking away the right. I would rather see a system whereby the loss of the RKBA and the time period for that loss is imposed by the judge rather than by a blanket law. Only violent felons should lose the RKBA. Then, too, there should be a way to use due process to regain the right. However, these are policy issues to be determined by the legislative process. They are not constitutional issues.

Ummm. Not exactly.

The 5th Amendment provides: "No person shall be...deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law..." This is not a blanket authorization to make whatever deprivations are determined by congress. And, it emphatically is not an authorization to deprive of enumerated rights. It is a guarantee of due process. If there is going to be a deprivation under the law, then there must be due process.

Also, what do you think are the odds that here deprivation of liberty means being imprisoned, rather than loss of a right? The articles--life, liberty, and property--are the jeopardies in criminal matters.
 
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eye95

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Sophistry.

That the Constitution says that life, Liberty, and property may not be taken without due process clearly means that they may be after due process. Otherwise, why not just say that life, Liberty, and property may not be taken period.

Simple logic.

I have made my point. There is no use in discussing this further after having disposed of this absolutely silly argument. Moving on.
 

Fallschirjmäger

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About 7 percent of the conditional offers made to non-blacks were rescinded for failing background checks, while about 10 percent of the offers made to blacks were withdrawn.

“The gross disparity in the rates at which black and non-black conditional employees were discharged on account of defendant’s criminal background check policy is statistically significant,” according to the EEOC complaint.
THREE PERCENT is a gross disparity?
Seven percent out of 86% of the population (non-black) measured against 10 percent of a statistically much smaller population (black).
InigoMontoya_zps6a66ba31.jpg
 

Citizen

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Sophistry.

That the Constitution says that life, Liberty, and property may not be taken without due process clearly means that they may be after due process. Otherwise, why not just say that life, Liberty, and property may not be taken period.

Simple logic.

I have made my point. There is no use in discussing this further after having disposed of this absolutely silly argument. Moving on.

Silly argument? Thomas Jefferson would be surprised to hear that. See his memo to Geo Washington regarding whether the new fedgov had the authority to charter a bank.

The entire Bill of Rights is a limitation on government. The delegated authorities are elsewhere. Just because something is prohibited in the Bill of Rights emphatically does not mean its opposite is authorized. Read the history of ratification. The constitution came out of the convention without a bill of rights. Numerous, maybe all, Framers were opposed to a bill of rights. Their argument was that a bill of rights was not necessary, that the fedgov would have only the powers delegated, and, if a power was not delegated, it couldn't be exercised. They intended the constitution to stand alone. The Bill of Rights only came along after a lot people objected and threatened to derail ratification.

Also, your argument can be applied to any right. For example, journalists can be denied free press as long as they receive due process (another surprise to Thomas Jefferson who saw the federalist party--his political enemies--lose the next election and fade away after passing the Sedition Act.) By your logic, self-incrimination can be compelled as long as due process is followed. By your logic, a defendant can be denied representation at trial as long as due process is followed. By your logic, people can be subjected to cruel and unusual punishments as long as due process is followed.

You can argue for the constitutionality of denying felons their RKBA if you want; but, you're going to have to find another clause.

Now, please stop the intellectual dishonesty of declaring you've disposed of a silly argument merely by repeating your old argument without actually addressing the points raised.
 

sudden valley gunner

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Ummm. Not exactly.

The 5th Amendment provides: "No person shall be...deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law..." This is not a blanket authorization to make whatever deprivations are determined by congress. And, it emphatically is not an authorization to deprive of enumerated rights. It is a guarantee of due process. If there is going to be a deprivation under the law, then there must be due process.

Also, what do you think are the odds that here deprivation of liberty means being imprisoned, rather than loss of a right? The articles--life, liberty, and property--are the jeopardies in criminal matters.

Silly argument? Thomas Jefferson would be surprised to hear that. See his memo to Geo Washington regarding whether the new fedgov had the authority to charter a bank.

The entire Bill of Rights is a limitation on government. The delegated authorities are elsewhere. Just because something is prohibited in the Bill of Rights emphatically does not mean its opposite is authorized. Read the history of ratification. The constitution came out of the convention without a bill of rights. Numerous, maybe all, Framers were opposed to a bill of rights. Their argument was that a bill of rights was not necessary, that the fedgov would have only the powers delegated, and, if a power was not delegated, it couldn't be exercised. They intended the constitution to stand alone. The Bill of Rights only came along after a lot people objected and threatened to derail ratification.

Also, your argument can be applied to any right. For example, journalists can be denied free press as long as they receive due process (another surprise to Thomas Jefferson who saw the federalist party--his political enemies--lose the next election and fade away after passing the Sedition Act.) By your logic, self-incrimination can be compelled as long as due process is followed. By your logic, a defendant can be denied representation at trial as long as due process is followed. By your logic, people can be subjected to cruel and unusual punishments as long as due process is followed.

You can argue for the constitutionality of denying felons their RKBA if you want; but, you're going to have to find another clause.

Now, please stop the intellectual dishonesty of declaring you've disposed of a silly argument merely by repeating your old argument without actually addressing the points raised.

Good points! I have reasoned that if taking guns can be done by this clause how about their right to exercise their religion, free speech, thoughts etc....
 

Scvette

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They can get their rights back,as long as it was non-violent,DV or a sex crime. In Alaska if your conviction is set aside or 10 yrs passes without issue. Federal felonys- forgetaboutit.
 

davidmcbeth

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IMO the differentiation of violent v. non-violent felonies is just another point to cause splintering in pro-gun folks.

fact is a felon is let out .... he can still kill w/o a gun .... if he is THAT dangerous then he should not be out, correct? If he's out, he should be a free man again..debt fully paid
 

eye95

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Mixed arguments showcase the folly of both.

Is he out because he has "paid his debt" or is he out because he is "no longer a danger"?

If we let them out because they have paid their debt, many will still be dangerous.

If we lock them up until some government agency determines they are no longer a danger (not exactly in line with the other ideas presented by those who post the "no longer a danger" argument), then "paying a debt" has nothing to do with how long a person is in prison.

The fact is that folks are in prison neither until some debt is paid nor until they are no longer a danger. They are in prison for a period determined by a combination of written law, the decision of a judge, and decisions during incarceration by government agencies charged with adjusting how sentences are carried out.
 

WalkingWolf

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If felons lose their right to self defense by due process, then it is legal to kill them, or that is what the wisdom(cough, couch) of the statists imply. If indeed they do have a right to self defense, they have a right to all those tools that are available.

Sounds very fascist to me...
 
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