imported post
TFred wrote:
The court is dealing with an act that took place before the new law went into effect, regardless of when after 7/1/09 the court hearing is held. Thus, the court has to apply the law as it existed on the date the act took place.
If the act takes place after 7/1/09 the court will apply the new law.
It is not the existence of the rule/policy/ordinance that matters, but the date when someone applies that rule/policy/ordinance against you.
Just to make your head swim even more, there is nothing in the law now that prevents you from asking the court to make the locality repay all your costs and expenses. And just as after 7/1/09, the court can decide to, or not to, order those costs and expenses reimbursed.
All the new law will do is put judges and localities on notice that is is legal (permitted by an act of the General Assembly) to recover costs/expenses, whereas in some few cases before, the judge had ruled that there was no law allowing that to happen.
Don't you just love the logic of the law? [/sarcasm]
stay safe.
skidmark
TFred wrote:
skidmark wrote:Sure, but why wouldn't a court action that takes place entirely after July 1 be covered? Are you saying that any violation of preemption that exists before July 1 is exempt from the provisions provided by the new law, no matter when the court action to correct it takes place?TFred wrote:Grapeshot wrote:July 1st is only 5 weeks and 1 day away. I don't know why it wouldn't apply any time after July 1st. It would certainly take longer than 5 weeks to even be heard in a court room.TFred wrote:I do not think that this new law takes effect until July 1st."You may also find it helpful to be reminded that the 2009 General Assembly passed, and the Governor signed into law, SB 1513, which allows a court to award attorney fees, expenses and court costs to any entity that prevails in an action challenging a violation of Section 15.2-915.
Your legal staff will certainly understand and agree that your clear violation of the law has no grounds, and will certainly not prevail, should litigation be required to prompt your action to correct the situation at hand."
(A little more "help" to convince them to do the right thing...)
TFred
Would not the date of infraction be the deciding factor as to whether it applied?
Yata hey
TFred
Tess had it correct when dealing with a law that has an implementation date. Anything that happens before the new law takes effect is tried under the old law, no matter how long it takes to get into court.
You have heard of ex post facto laws, right? Unconstitutional as all get-out. You are trying to create a pre post facto law - too confusing for even a Supreme Court Justice nominee who singlehandedly saved Major League baseball to contemplate.
stay safe.
skidmark
That makes no sense to me at all.
ETA: In fact, since almost universally, violations of preemption originate from old rules/laws that were never updated to reflect preemption, there will be very few cases that do not come from before July 1, 2009.
TFred
The court is dealing with an act that took place before the new law went into effect, regardless of when after 7/1/09 the court hearing is held. Thus, the court has to apply the law as it existed on the date the act took place.
If the act takes place after 7/1/09 the court will apply the new law.
It is not the existence of the rule/policy/ordinance that matters, but the date when someone applies that rule/policy/ordinance against you.
Just to make your head swim even more, there is nothing in the law now that prevents you from asking the court to make the locality repay all your costs and expenses. And just as after 7/1/09, the court can decide to, or not to, order those costs and expenses reimbursed.
All the new law will do is put judges and localities on notice that is is legal (permitted by an act of the General Assembly) to recover costs/expenses, whereas in some few cases before, the judge had ruled that there was no law allowing that to happen.
Don't you just love the logic of the law? [/sarcasm]
stay safe.
skidmark