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Alabama Sheriff Andy Hughes says no action will be taken against open carriers without his approval

Bird Dog

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eye95 wrote:
Actually, he did. He disputes that officers don't have discretion to violate rights. They absolutely don't.
You and I actually agree on this issue. I'm just not making myself clear.

I am not saying that officers ever have the discretion to consciously violate someone's rights. By definition, a deliberate violation of a constitutional right is a non-discretionary act.An officer who violates a clearly established right acts beyond his discretion, and immunity is withheld.

What I'm saying is that when faced with an unsettled legal issue, officers dohave the discretion to make a reasonable interpretation of the law. After the fact, a court may later clearly define the right in a way that reveals the officer unknowingly violated it. In those circumstances, immunity shields the officer from personal liability.

Agood example of what I'm talking about is the U.S. Supreme Court decision in Arizona v. Grant, 129 U.S. 1710 (2009). Prior to that decision, it was commonly believed that officers could conduct a complete search of the passenger compartment of an automobile whenever they arrested an occupant. Officers relied on a prior Supreme Court decision called New York v. Belton, which seemed to indicate that such searches were authorized under the Fourth Amendment.

In Grant, the Supreme Court ruled that those searches violate the vehicle owner's Fourth Amendment rights (except in certain limited circumstances).

In other words, we now know thatevery time an officer conducted such a search prior to Grant, he unknowingly violated somebody's rights. The Supreme Court actually addressed this issue in a footnote: "Because a broad reading of Beltonhas been widely accepted, the doctrine of qualified immunity will shield officers from liability for searches conducted in reasonable reliance on that understanding."

I would compare 13A-11-52 to Belton. -52 seems to indicate that a person cannot openly carry a pistol on private property that is not his own, much like Belton seemed to indicate that officers could lawfully search a car whenever they arrested an occupant. I realize -52 has been judiciallylimited somewhat, but I do not agree that it has been judicially limited to the extent that people on this board argue.

I am saying that if an officer interprets -52 to prohibit open carry in a restaurant (which is private propertynot his own), I believe the courts would protect that officer with immunity, even if they later explicitly rule that open carry in a restaurant is lawful. I just do not believe the law is sufficiently clear to put officers on notice that an arrest for open carry in a restaurant violates clearly established law.

I believe you and I got confused because I should have explained the difference between discretionary and non-discretionary acts: An officer never has the discretion to violate somebody's clearly established rights. If the officer knowingly violates somebody's rights, by definition he is not performing a discretionary act. I should have explained that.
 

Bird Dog

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eye95 wrote:
dixieborn wrote:
Annnnd the whole point of the post flew right over his head. Oh well, I tried.
You did try.

If you will identify the post that you want me to admit I was wrong in, I will gladly take another look at it.

I agree that Hyde only addressed long guns, but I do not agree that its holding is irrelevant to open carry in general. The fact remains that Hyde specifically upheld the constitutionality of an ordinance that restricted the open carry of certain firearms under certain circumstances. In doing so, Hyde demonstrated that the constitution does not grant an absolute right to open carry in all situations.

In other words, Hyde shows that a statute like 13A-11-52 is not automatically unconstitutional just because it might restrict open carry. Hyde proves that Alabama courts very well may uphold such restrictions.
 

Bird Dog

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I just noticed the post in which I referred to the Birmingham ordinance as a "handgun ordinance." I was wrong about that. It was not a handgun ordinance.

Until persuaded otherwise, however, I still stand by my position that the Hyde case demonstrates that all regulation of open carry is not automatically unconstitutional.
 

eye95

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*sigh* I am going to regret having responded, but...

Ignoring, solely for the sake of argument, that -73 is a complete revision of the matter, -52 refers to pistols (handguns only). Therefore, comparison to the Birmingham ordinance fails on at least two counts:

1. The ordinance does not apply to pistols.

2. The ordinance is no more a gun law than a law stating that you may not say, "I'm going to kill all you sumbitches!" while in possession of a handgun would be gun law. Such a law and the ordinance both are laws against a behavior in the context of possessing a gun, not against the possession of the gun itself (an argument that has thus far been ignored).

Should such a law be passed, it would simply be outlawing a specific form of assault, and clearly would not be gun law.
 

Bird Dog

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eye95 wrote:
*sigh* I am going to regret having responded, but...

Ignoring, solely for the sake of argument, that -73 is a complete revision of the matter, -52 refers to pistols (handguns only). Therefore, comparison to the Birmingham ordinance fails on at least two counts:

1. The ordinance does not apply to pistols.

2. The ordinance is no more a gun law than a law stating that you may not say, "I'm going to kill all you sumbitches!" while in possession of a handgun would be gun law. Such a law and the ordinance both are laws against a behavior in the context of possessing a gun, not against the possession of the gun itself (an argument that has thus far been ignored).

Should such a law be passed, it would simply be outlawing a specific form of assault, and clearly would not be gun law.


I just see it differently. If the ordinance wasn't a gun law, why did the Court of Criminal Appeals even have to consider the question of whether or not it violated the right to bear arms?

The title of the ordinance was "AN ORDINANCE TO MAKE UNLAWFUL THE POSSESSION OF A FIREARM IN A PUBLIC PLACE OR WITHIN PUBLIC VIEW UNDER CIRCUMSTANCES TENDING TO PROVOKE A BREACH OF THE PEACE."

I interpret that as an ordinance that limited the circumstances and places in which certain types of firearms could be possessed.

I agree that the ordinance did not apply to handguns. However, haven't courts traditionally upheld greater restrictions on handguns than on long guns? I would think that if a long gun could constitutionally be regulated in a certain manner, then it should follow that handguns could certainly be similarly regulated.

Regarding the "complete revision" language, again you have to read that in conjunction with themore recentstatement by the same court that -52 is still in effect. To the extent you find those statements to be contradictory, the "still in effect" statement would govern because it is the more recent statement by that court.
 

Bird Dog

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eye95 wrote:
Such a law and the ordinance both are laws against a behavior in the context of possessing a gun, not against the possession of the gun itself (an argument that has thus far been ignored).


Regardless of ourdiffering opinions on whether or not Hyde applies,I think we can agree that -52 has not been repealed and, thus far, has not been explicitly declared unconstitutional.

The Court of Criminal Appeals tells us -52 is still in effect.

The only question that remains is how to interpret -52.

To the extent there is a conflict between -73 and -52, -73 prevails. Thus, concealed carry and transport in a vehicle with a permit would be lawful, even on someone else's private property.

But -73 does not address open carry outside a vehicle.

-52 is the only statute that currently addresses open carry on foot.

Since -52 has not been declared unconstitutional and since the Court of Criminal Appeals tells us -52 is still in effect, in my opinion open carry (on foot) on private property that is not your ownisillegal.

Don't get angry at me about this. I'm just giving you my personal opinion.
 

eye95

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No -52 has not been repealed. However, -73 is a (one more time) complete revision on the matter of CC, and -52 applies only to CC.

I am not going to go back through the process again. It is in the "prohibit" thread and was summarized very nicely in another thread.

If (again) you choose not to accept the court rulings and the AG opinions on the matter, just go ahead and take your legal chances busting someone OCing. I am loath to sue officers who make a mistake. That has already been clearly demonstrated. However, after all the effort to convince you of what legal scholars say, should you choose to detain me for OC, I'd sue you. Just as I'd sue in Coffee County.

I knew I'd regret it. I'll go in search of fruitful discussions.
 

Mike

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Bird Dog wrote:
Mike wrote:
- the -52 statute has ALREADY been more narrowly construed by the courts of Alabama than the plain text would suggest, i.e., no law is broken by open carrying on premises of another, -52 notwithstanding.
Where do you find this? Which case?
When an appeals court uses explicit language like "hold" and "reverses" trial court convictions, it can be said the law has been construed clearly. Additionally, its is generally accepted that when legislatures do not disturb AG opinions for many years, and when courts cite to them in published opinions with approval, that the AG opinions are considered valid construction of the law, due deference by courts, and sworn law enforcement officals - they also may be used to support a mistake of law defense.

In CDJ v. State (1995) the Alabama appeals court reversed conviction of Defendant for a -52 violation for possession of a pistol on premises of another because it held "that § 13A-11-73 is the correct charge for possession of an unlicensed pistol. Section 13A-11-52 applies only the extent that it is consistent with § 13A-11-73 because it is "the later statute and a complete revision of the subject matter." Braxton, 350 So.2d at 755."

There are many cases and AG opinions consistent with this explicit holding in CDJ, often citing to each other for support:

Looney v. State (1962): “a permit is not required when a person afoot carries an unconcealed pistol. This analysis comports with an Attorney General's opinion by then Assistant Attorney General Gallion on this statute before the 1956 amendment which transplanted the word 'concealed' from being immediatelybefore ‘in any vehicle’ to its present place in the section. There it is said: ‘* * * a person may carry an unconcealed and unlicensed pistol anywhere, either on his own property, * * * on the public highways, public property or the land of another person without violating either Section 163, supra, or Section 175, as amended, supra, * * *’ -- Quarterly Reports of Attorney General, Vol. 79, p. 31, 35.”

More from C.D.J. v. State (1995): “Section 13A-11-52 . . . does not permit the carrying of a pistol outside of a person's own premises under any circumstances. However, that section does begin with the phrase ‘except as otherwise provided in this article.’ Section 13A-11-73 clearly allows a person with a pistol license to carry a pistol in a vehicle or concealed on the person. Furthermore, in Morris v. State[/i][/b], 342 So. 2d 417, 418 (Ala. Cr. App. 1977), and Looney v. State[/i][/b], 41 Ala. App. 582, 141 So. 2d 535, 536 (1962), this court held that § 13A-11-73 does not prohibit carrying an unlicensed pistolif the pistol is unconcealed and the person is on foot. . . . Section 13A-11-52 applies only the extent that it is consistent with § 13A-11-73 because it is ‘the later statute and a complete revision of the subject matter.’ Braxton[/i][/b], 350 So. 2d at 755. Therefore, the state should have been required to prove all of the elements of a violation of § 13A-11-73.”

See also 2006 Ala. AG LEXIS 145 (Ala. AG 2006) (“Section 13A-11-52 of the Code of Alabama . . . must be read with section 13A-11-73 of the Code of Alabama, which states that "[n]o person shall carry a pistol in any vehicle or concealed on or about his person, except on his land, in his own abode or fixed place of business, without a license therefore as hereinafter provided." ALA. CODE § 13A-11-73 (2006).”); 1984 Ala. AG Op. #84-00205 (“Section 13A-11-73 takes precedence [over Section 13A-11-52] (citing to Braxton v. State[/i][/b], 350 So.2d 753 (1977)), available at http://www.ago.state.al.us/oldopinions/8400205.pdf.
 

Dianosis

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To the extent there is a conflict between -73 and -52, -73 prevails. Thus, concealed carry and transport in a vehicle with a permit would be lawful, even on someone else's private property.

But -73 does not address open carry outside a vehicle.

-52 is the only statute that currently addresses open carry on foot.
"To the extent there is a conflict between -73 and -52, -73 prevails. Thus, concealed carry and transport in a vehicle with a permit would be lawful, even on someone else's private property."

Following that logic, you would have to concede that -52 is indeed dealing with concealed carry.

"-52 is the only statute that currently addresses open carry on foot. "

Actually that's not what I read, it says on or about his person, so if -73 prevails doesn't this have to indicate concealed? On or about his person could mean concealed just as well as open.

Question:

How can we know or prove that -73 is complete revision of the subject matter of -52?
It seems to me, that if we can prove that -73 is the new -52 then the whole argument would be solved because we'd know we are ONLY dealing with concealed.
Edit- Seems like Mike just did that above with
CDJ v. State

If -52 does apply to open carry, then I guess everyone at the shooting range indoor or outdoor, anyone that has a gun uncovered at a relatives or friends house, is subject to arrest? If my neighbor is being attacked next door, I guess if I don't have a permit, I can run to the edge of my property, but i better stop right there! This is ludicrous and makes no sense and I don't see how this is what was intended.
 

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This is a very interesting discussion. I live in Louisiana where case law concerning the legal and constitutional right to OC is well established. Still I come across numerous police officers who continue to express the opinion that no one may openly carry a firearm. Even after showing them case law and AG opinions they refuse to accept the legality of OC.

This Supreme Court decision--Harlow v Fitzgerald 457 U.S. 800, says that ALL public officials are personally responsible for knowing the law concerning their actions. If Alabama case law is supportive of OC then the police are bound by this case. Any arrest for OC would seem to place the officer in jeopardy of various civil rights statutes.
 

Bird Dog

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Dianosis wrote:
Following that logic, you would have to concede that -52 is indeed dealing with concealed carry.
I believe -52 originally addressed both concealed carry and open carry because both are forms of carry "on or about the person," but -73 now supersedes -52 on concealed carry. -52 still applies to all forms of carry on or about the person except concealed carry.
Actually that's not what I read, it says on or about his person, so if -73 prevails doesn't this have to indicate concealed? On or about his person could mean concealed just as well as open.
Again, I think "on or about his person" means what it says and encompasses both concealed carry and open carry. However, -73 now supersedes -52 onthe concealed carry form of carrying a handgun on or about the person and allows a person to carry a concealed handgun on premises not his own as long as he has a permit.

Question:

How can we know or prove that -73 is complete revision of the subject matter of -52?
It seems to me, that if we can prove that -73 is the new -52 then the whole argument would be solved because we'd know we are ONLY dealing with concealed.
But we know -73 is not the new -52 because the Court of Criminal Appeals tells us -52 is "still in effect." The Court of Criminal Appeals used the phrase "still in effect" in an opinion (K.J. v. State, 1997) that it issued after its "complete revision" opinion (Braxton v. State, 1977). When the same court has addressed an issue on two occasions, its more recent pronouncement prevails.
Edit: I just noticed that Braxton did not even say that -73 is a complete revision of -52. Read my next post below.
If -52 does apply to open carry, then I guess everyone at the shooting range indoor or outdoor, anyone that has a gun uncovered at a relatives or friends house, is subject to arrest? If my neighbor is being attacked next door, I guess if I don't have a permit, I can run to the edge of my property, but i better stop right there! This is ludicrous and makes no sense and I don't see how this is what was intended.
These are good rhetorical arguments for a debate on whether or not open carry should be legal, but they don't prove that it is legal.
 

Bird Dog

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(Note: Braxton (the "complete revision" opinion) actually dealt with the statutes in the Code of 1940, but I'm going to refer to them by their Code of 1975 sections for simplicity.)

I just noticed that Braxton did not even address -52. It did not hold that -73 is a complete revision of -52.

Instead, Braxton held that -73 (the statute that authorizes concealed carry with a permit) is a complete revision to -50 (the statute that prohibits Carrying Concealed Weapons under any circumstances).

So the agrument that -73 is a complete revision of -52 does not fly.

The "complete revision" holding just tells us that police cannot arrest a person for Carrying a Concealed Weapon under -50 (which makes no exception for carrying with a permit) when the person has a valid permit and is carrying concealed in compliance with -52.

In other words, the authority created by -52to carry a pistol concealed with a permit is a "complete revision" of -50, which would otherwise prohibit concealed carry even with a permit.
 

Bird Dog

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Mike wrote:
Well ... the court in Morris v. State seems to hold no man may be prosecuted for resisting arrest where the arrest was an unlawful attempt to interfere in lawful open cary.

In Morris v. State, the Court of Criminal Appeals only considered whether the arrest was lawful under the then-existing version of -73. The court actually quoted that statute (-73) and said, "It is to be observed that this law prohibits carrying a pistol (concealed or not) in any vehicle or ‘concealed on or about his person, except . . . without a license therefor . . ..’ It does not prohibit an unconcealed pistol."

The quoted statute (-73), whencombined with the words "this law" and "it",tell us the court in Morris was discussing -73, and only -73. There is absolutely no mention of -52 in Morris.

And, obviously, the court was correct: -73, itself,does not prohibit unconcealed pistols. In fact, -73does not address unconcealed pistols carried on or about the person one way or the other.

-52, on the other hand, prohibits the carrying of a pistol on or about the person on premises not your own, except when -73 overrides it for people carrying concealed pistols with permits.

In any event, -52 was not considered in Morris. Perhaps the officers failed to file a charge under -52. Or, perhaps the defendant in Morris was arrested on his own property or on public property.

We don't know because the court doesn't tell us where Morris was arrested. The courtdoes tell us, "It is immaterial that defendant did or did not have a pistol permit. He had a right to carry the pistol unconcealed at the time and place of arrest." Obviously, if Morris was on his own premises or on public property, that would make sense. If the right to open carry was really unlimited, the court would not have qualified that sentence with the words "at the time and place of arrest."

The bottom line is that you cannot rely on Morris to claim -52 does not prohibit open carry on someone else's private property because the court never mentioned-52 in Morris.
 

Bird Dog

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Mike wrote:
Well, the Court in CDJ says it does fly...


Now, I'll address CDJ v. State.

The pistols (there were two of them)in CDJ were found inside a vehicle, and -73 authorizes people to carry pistols inside vehicles with a permit.

CDJ tells us that if there's a conflict between -52 and -73, then -73 prevails.

Since -73 authorizes people to carry pistols inside vehicles with a permit, it prevails over -52 when the gun is found inside a vehicle. Therefore, police must prove the person lacked a permit in order to obtain a conviction when the gun is found inside a vehicle.

The key to the court's holding in CDJ was the opening phrase of -52: "Except as otherwise provided in this article... "

The pertinent portion of -52 states, "Except as otherwise provided in this article, no person shall carry a pistol about his person on premises not his own or under his control..."

Because -73 provides otherwise when the pistol is in a vehicle and the possessor has a permit, it overrides -52 in that particular situation. In CDJ, the court said, "Section 13A-11-73 clearly allows a person with a pistol license to carry a pistol in a vehicle or concealed on the person."

The court added, "in [Morris] and [Looney] this court held that 13A-11-73does not prohibit carrying an unlicensed pistol if the pistol is unconcealed and the person is on foot." That is also true. -73 does not prohibit open carry. But -73 does not authorize it either! -73 does not address open carry outsidea vehicle one way or the other. Therefore, there is no conflict between -73 and -52when the pistol is not concealed and the person is on foot. In those situations, -52 still controls.

The court ended the opinion by quoting from Braxton: "Section 13A-11-52 applies only to the extent that it is consistent with 13A-11-73 because it is 'the later statute and a complete revision of the subject matter.'" Borrowing that quote from Braxton was a bad fit because it's somewhat confusing. You have to read the entire sentence for context. That sentence explicitly tells us that -52 still applies to the extent that it is consistent with -73. In the more recent case ofKJ v. State (1997), the Court of Criminal Appeals reiterated that -52 is "still in effect."

Since -73 does not address open carry one way or the other,there is no conflict between -73 and -52 onopen carry. -52 is still the law for open carry outside a vehicle.
 

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Bird Dog wrote:
In the more recent case ofKJ v. State (1997), the Court of Criminal Appeals reiterated that -52 is "still in effect."
OK, to the extent a juvenile or other prohibted person is charged with a concealed carry violation, KJ says a -52 charge can be brought without proving that the Defendant was not licensed because he was inelegible for the license - this is a procedural case re a -52 violation which is "consistent with" a -73 violation and re the evidence needed to convict.

A -52 textual violation for conduct not unlawful under -73, e.g., open carry on premises of another, or concealed carry on premises of another with a license, is not a legal violation of -52. Neither of these "violations" of the textual commands of -52 are deemed unlawfulunder the statutory constructions set forth by the courts of Alabama which considers -73 to have "revised" -52.

This is why the Alabama AG opinions consistently opine that open carry on foot on the premises of another arenot -52 violations and these opinions have been cited favorably by the appeals court of Alabama.

Even forgetting for a moment that Alabama courts have already cited favorably to AG opinions on thisissue, state legislatures are "presumed to have knowledge of the Attorney General’s interpretation of the law, and its 'failure to make corrective amendments evinces legislative acquiescence in the Attorney General’s interpretation.'" City of Winchester v. American Woodmark Corp., 250 Va. 451, 458, 464 S.E.2d 148, 153 (1995).
 

Mike

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Bird Dog wrote:
Instead, Braxton held that -73 (the statute that authorizes concealed carry with a permit) is a complete revision to -50
-73 "authorizes" open carry on foot without a permit as much as it "authorizes" concealed cary with permit
 

Bird Dog

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Mike wrote:
Even forgetting for a moment that Alabama courts have already cited favorably to AG opinions on thisissue, state legislatures are "presumed to have knowledge of the Attorney General’s interpretation of the law, and its 'failure to make corrective amendments evinces legislative acquiescence in the Attorney General’s interpretation.'" City of Winchester v. American Woodmark Corp., 250 Va. 451, 458, 464 S.E.2d 148, 153 (1995).

Try telling that to the bingo people! Troy King's AG opinion on bingo got them nowhere with the Supreme Court, even though the legislature "failed to make corrective amendments."

By the way, that's a Virginia case you're citing.
 

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Mike wrote:
Bird Dog wrote:
Instead, Braxton held that -73 (the statute that authorizes concealed carry with a permit) is a complete revision to -50
-73 "authorizes" open carry on foot without a permit as much as it "authorizes" concealed cary with permit
Nope. -73 addresses concealed carry specifically, butdoes notmention open carry at all (outside the context of a vehicle). You can't revise something without even mentioning it.
 
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