devildoc5
Regular Member
First off I am not a very smart person, but it would appear to me that some of you "guys across the pond" might be able to file something similar to a civil suit regarding the firearms ban in the UK. I believe you guys call it "judicial review" or somethign to that effect.
From what little I have read thus far your Bill of Rights of 1689 states "no royal interference in the freedom of the people to have arms for their own defence as suitable to their class and as allowed by law"
It wold seem to me that any further laws restricting arms would be in violation of this.
As I stated, I am not well versed in the British/Parliamentary style of politics (or any politics for that matter), but unless this specific act was amended than any new laws against arms (i.e. the firearms ban) seems like it would be a violation of Parliamentary law and SHOULD thusly be invalid.
Is there some sort of sign or something I am missing here?
From what little I have read thus far your Bill of Rights of 1689 states "no royal interference in the freedom of the people to have arms for their own defence as suitable to their class and as allowed by law"
It wold seem to me that any further laws restricting arms would be in violation of this.
As I stated, I am not well versed in the British/Parliamentary style of politics (or any politics for that matter), but unless this specific act was amended than any new laws against arms (i.e. the firearms ban) seems like it would be a violation of Parliamentary law and SHOULD thusly be invalid.
Is there some sort of sign or something I am missing here?
