Meaningless. Finding a correlation merely means that the work has just begun, work that is rarely continued. But then, we must ask ourselves about the motivation of those conducting the "study" and those pushing the correlations that are found. Do they pursue the truth? Or do they just want to create an impression, a false one?
Correlation does not mean causation. There are four possible reasons for a correlation between the values of two variables, A and B:
1. A causes B.
2. B causes A.
3. C causes both A and B.
4. Coincidence (which literally means two things happening at the same time).
Examples:
1. Carry causes binge drinking (ludicrous).
2. Binge drinking causes carry (even more ludicrous).
3. Some other attribute(s) increase(s) the probability that one will both carry and binge drink (most likely).
4. The sample was so small that it does not accurately represent the population (not likely, judging from the CI).
Without knowing which of the above is at play (and , in the third case, what C is), the study is meaningless.
Oh, and chronic drunks are, by definition, not binge drinkers. Do alcoholics have an increased or decreased propensity to carry? I suspect decreased as it would be too much of a bother to carry.
Binge drinking (from time to time having 5 or more drinks) and carry are both behaviors of people who believe that they are ultimately in charge of regulating their own actions (as are many behaviors that these "researchers" would consider "risky"*). I believe that the correlation is due to this link (making the correlation a result of effect #3 above, C being the belief in individual responsibility for one's actions). As long as folks don't binge drink and carry at the same time, I couldn't care less about, and am unsurprised by, the correlation.
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*This, of course, raises the question, "What is the typical correlation between any two 'risky' behaviors?" I suspect that number is close to the numbers they found in the study--depriving the correlation found in the study of even more of its meaning.