I have mixed feelings on that one.
In one sense, voting is definitionally a "privilege", as one does not have an innate ability to vote without a government first being formed for him to vote
in.
In another sense... Individuals have an absolute right to consent (or not) to government. With this in mind, it seems difficult to argue that individuals do not have a
right to exercise the modicum of influence afforded to them on/by a government which is otherwise imposed on them
without their consent.
If I have a right not to be robbed, then surely it is not a mere "privilege" afforded to me by the robber to entreat him to at least leave me with my shoes. Clearly, this is my right, and were he to then take my shoes he would be violating me yet again.
Chew on
that for awhile.