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The right to remain silent

JT

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simmonsjoe wrote:
No. I don't have to invoke any other rights, do I?

I shouldn't have to declare to a police officer when I'm about to write a book or go to church.

I shouldn't have to declare to a police officer when I'm going to be leaving the house bearing arms.

I shouldn't have to declare to a police officer that I do not want troops quartered in my home.

I shouldn't have to declare to a police officer that he cannot search and seize me without a warrant.

Here we are in this thread. I could go on but you get it.

These are birthrights based solely on our humanity. We do not need to declare any of them, including the right to remain silent, because the Bill of Rights already does that for us.


It has never been said that you have to invoke the "right to remain silent." As I said that right isexercised the second you shut up. Conversly it is relinquished the second you begin to answer questions.

What is being said is that you can formally invoke your right to remain silent and put an end to the questioning. Miranda didn't enumerate the right. It clarified it and limited law enforcement's power. There are times that formal invocation ofour rights are not only necessary but desirable. Particularly when that right is being challenged.
 

canadian

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Silly serfs. You have no rights. Where doyou think you are, a free country or something?
 

novasig226r

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The ruling comes in a case where a suspect, Van Chester Thompkins, remained mostly silent for a three-hour police interrogation before implicating himself in a Jan. 10, 2000, murder in Southfield, Mich. He appealed his conviction, saying that he invoked his Miranda right to remain silent by remaining silent.

Watch law professor James Duane explain it (again).

Thompkins sat silent for most of an interrogation and then opened his mouth. Both Professor Duane and his guest talk about this very thing, amongst other fine points.
 

swine

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simmonsjoe wrote:
JT wrote:
simmonsjoe wrote:
I think Sotomayor has it right this time.

You must give every edge to the 'suspect' simply due to the disparity of force.

Sotomayor and the other dissenting justices are wrong. Still, using your premise of "disparity of force" wouldn't it then make more sense to specifically and formally invoke your rights rather than just remain mute? If you tell them you won't be answering questions and want a lawyer they are legally sanctioned to stop asking questions. Remaining mute relies on your endurance.

At what point does mute silence invoke your right? Answer: Thesecond you go mute but you have placed no sanction on law enforcement other than the battle of wills you have entered into.

When does mere mute silence invalidate anything you say once you break your silence? Answer: Never
No. I don't have to invoke any other rights, do I?

I shouldn't have to declare to a police officer when I'm about to write a book or go to church.

I shouldn't have to declare to a police officer when I'm going to be leaving the house bearing arms.

I shouldn't have to declare to a police officer that I do not want troops quartered in my home.

I shouldn't have to declare to a police officer that he cannot search and seize me without a warrant.

Here we are in this thread. I could go on but you get it.

These are birthrights based solely on our humanity. We do not need to declare any of them, including the right to remain silent, because the Bill of Rights already does that for us.
'simmonsjoe' is right about this (although coming from me that will probably tar and feather him from now on in this site). The Fifth Amendment says: "No person...shall be compelled to be a witness against himself."


Among the things it doesn't say that it has been presumed to say, as for example in the Miranda Decision, is that no person can becompelled to give testimony against himself, or give evidence against himself, or provide damning information to the prosecution, etc., etc.

It says that no person can be compelled to act as a witnessagainst himself in any form or fashion. The merepresence of a person brought before an inquisition of any kind intended extract incriminating information from him violates the Fifth Amendment.

The Jewish Law, The Halakha, prohibits the use of any such information obtained from the accused in a trial whether obtain voluntarily on his part or not. The Halakha recognizes that people are sometimes self destructive and actagainst their own interests. Their law is meant to protect peoplefrom their ownself-destructiveness. And that is what the Fifth Amendment intendedto do, but has thus far failed to do as a result of contary precedents down through the years.

Think ofit this way: If all the Fifth Amendment was meant to do (in it's relevant parts)was to protect the guilty from acknowledging their guilt under oath, it isn't much of a protection is it? Why even bother with it?
 

Brimstone Baritone

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swine wrote:
'simmonsjoe' is right about this (although coming from me that will probably tar and feather him from now on in this site). The Fifth Amendment says: "No person...shall be compelled to be a witness against himself."


Among the things it doesn't say that it has been presumed to say, as for example in the Miranda Decision, is that no person can becompelled to give testimony against himself, or give evidence against himself, or provide damning information to the prosecution, etc., etc.

It says that no person can be compelled to act as a witnessagainst himself in any form or fashion. The merepresence of a person brought before an inquisition of any kind intended extract incriminating information from him violates the Fifth Amendment.

The Jewish Law, The Halakha, prohibits the use of any such information obtained from the accused in a trial whether obtain voluntarily on his part or not. The Halakha recognizes that people are sometimes self destructive and actagainst their own interests. Their law is meant to protect peoplefrom their ownself-destructiveness. And that is what the Fifth Amendment intendedto do, but has thus far failed to do as a result of contary precedents down through the years.

Think ofit this way: If all the Fifth Amendment was meant to do (in it's relevant parts)was to protect the guilty from acknowledging their guilt under oath, it isn't much of a protection is it? Why even bother with it?
Nice post. If you can, could you post a reference to that part of Jewish law? If not, I'll google it later. That is an idea I hadn't considered.
 

eye95

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Just a reminder for those who need it:

No person ... shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself, ...
Folks can voluntarily open their mouth anytime. To say that they can't after having been silent for some arbitrarily court-prescribed time is to limit their rights!
 

swine

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mcdonalk wrote:
swine wrote:
'simmonsjoe' is right about this (although coming from me that will probably tar and feather him from now on in this site). The Fifth Amendment says: "No person...shall be compelled to be a witness against himself."


Among the things it doesn't say that it has been presumed to say, as for example in the Miranda Decision, is that no person can becompelled to give testimony against himself, or give evidence against himself, or provide damning information to the prosecution, etc., etc.

It says that no person can be compelled to act as a witnessagainst himself in any form or fashion. The merepresence of a person brought before an inquisition of any kind intended extract incriminating information from him violates the Fifth Amendment.

The Jewish Law, The Halakha, prohibits the use of any such information obtained from the accused in a trial whether obtain voluntarily on his part or not. The Halakha recognizes that people are sometimes self destructive and actagainst their own interests. Their law is meant to protect peoplefrom their ownself-destructiveness. And that is what the Fifth Amendment intendedto do, but has thus far failed to do as a result of contary precedents down through the years.

Think ofit this way: If all the Fifth Amendment was meant to do (in it's relevant parts)was to protect the guilty from acknowledging their guilt under oath, it isn't much of a protection is it? Why even bother with it?
Nice post. If you can, could you post a reference to that part of Jewish law? If not, I'll google it later. That is an idea I hadn't considered.

[suB]See: Cf. Lamm, The 5th Amendment and Its Equivalent in Jewish Law, 17 Decalogue Jour. 1, Jan.-Feb.1967[/suB]

[suB]See also: SCOTUS decision in 'Garrity vs. New Jersey, 1967'[/suB]
 

JT

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swine wrote:
'simmonsjoe' is right about this (although coming from me that will probably tar and feather him from now on in this site). The Fifth Amendment says: "No person...shall be compelled to be a witness against himself."


Among the things it doesn't say that it has been presumed to say, as for example in the Miranda Decision, is that no person can becompelled to give testimony against himself, or give evidence against himself, or provide damning information to the prosecution, etc., etc.

It says that no person can be compelled to act as a witnessagainst himself in any form or fashion. The merepresence of a person brought before an inquisition of any kind intended extract incriminating information from him violates the Fifth Amendment.

The Jewish Law, The Halakha, prohibits the use of any such information obtained from the accused in a trial whether obtain voluntarily on his part or not. The Halakha recognizes that people are sometimes self destructive and actagainst their own interests. Their law is meant to protect peoplefrom their ownself-destructiveness. And that is what the Fifth Amendment intendedto do, but has thus far failed to do as a result of contary precedents down through the years.

Think ofit this way: If all the Fifth Amendment was meant to do (in it's relevant parts)was to protect the guilty from acknowledging their guilt under oath, it isn't much of a protection is it? Why even bother with it?

Question 1: What does Jewish law have to do with this? We are talking about the 5th Amendment and the warnings which are required by Miranda and the limitations placed on police by that andrelatedcase law.

Question 2: At what point was Thompkins compelled to be a witness against himself thereby violating his 5th Amendment rights.

Question 3: What period of silence must pass before police lose the authority to question a suspect who has been legally detained?
 

swine

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JT wrote:
swine wrote:
'simmonsjoe' is right about this (although coming from me that will probably tar and feather him from now on in this site). The Fifth Amendment says: "No person...shall be compelled to be a witness against himself."


Among the things it doesn't say that it has been presumed to say, as for example in the Miranda Decision, is that no person can becompelled to give testimony against himself, or give evidence against himself, or provide damning information to the prosecution, etc., etc.

It says that no person can be compelled to act as a witnessagainst himself in any form or fashion. The merepresence of a person brought before an inquisition of any kind intended extract incriminating information from him violates the Fifth Amendment.

The Jewish Law, The Halakha, prohibits the use of any such information obtained from the accused in a trial whether obtain voluntarily on his part or not. The Halakha recognizes that people are sometimes self destructive and actagainst their own interests. Their law is meant to protect peoplefrom their ownself-destructiveness. And that is what the Fifth Amendment intendedto do, but has thus far failed to do as a result of contary precedents down through the years.

Think ofit this way: If all the Fifth Amendment was meant to do (in it's relevant parts)was to protect the guilty from acknowledging their guilt under oath, it isn't much of a protection is it? Why even bother with it?
Question 1: What does Jewish law have to do with this? We are talking about the 5th Amendment and the warnings which are required by Miranda and the limitations placed on police by that andrelatedcase law. The Halakha is cited in a well known SCOTUS decision (Garrity vs New Jersey) as an example of why anyone would or should be protected from giving incriminating evidence against himself, and to give an example of a legal system in which no incriminating information obtained by any means whatsoever can be usedagainst the accused.My own view is that the authors of the Fifth Amendment meant to provide the same level of protection to us, because anything less than that is so weak as to be pointless.

Question 2: At what point was Thompkins compelled to be a witness against himself thereby violating his 5th Amendment rights. At the pointat which the inquisitors started asking him questions, whether he answered them or not, to which the answersmight incriminate him in a criminal trial. It was at that point that he became a 'witness against himself' which the Fifth Amendment prohibits the inquisitors from compelling him to be.

Question 3: What period of silence must pass before police lose the authority to question a suspect who has been legally detained? The police have no authority under the Fifth Amendment to ask the accused ANY questions for which the answersmight incriminate him in a criminal matter. No period of silence is required.
I repeat: What kind of puny 'protection' is provided by a law that only protects those already known to be guilty from admitting their guilt under oath? How are they'known tobe guilty' you might ask? Answer:by refusing to answerquestions as to whetherorthey are guilty or not.
 

Mr.FiredUp

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swine wrote:
JT wrote:
swine wrote:
'simmonsjoe' is right about this (although coming from me that will probably tar and feather him from now on in this site). The Fifth Amendment says: "No person...shall be compelled to be a witness against himself."


Among the things it doesn't say that it has been presumed to say, as for example in the Miranda Decision, is that no person can becompelled to give testimony against himself, or give evidence against himself, or provide damning information to the prosecution, etc., etc.

It says that no person can be compelled to act as a witnessagainst himself in any form or fashion. The merepresence of a person brought before an inquisition of any kind intended extract incriminating information from him violates the Fifth Amendment.

The Jewish Law, The Halakha, prohibits the use of any such information obtained from the accused in a trial whether obtain voluntarily on his part or not. The Halakha recognizes that people are sometimes self destructive and actagainst their own interests. Their law is meant to protect peoplefrom their ownself-destructiveness. And that is what the Fifth Amendment intendedto do, but has thus far failed to do as a result of contary precedents down through the years.

Think ofit this way: If all the Fifth Amendment was meant to do (in it's relevant parts)was to protect the guilty from acknowledging their guilt under oath, it isn't much of a protection is it? Why even bother with it?
Question 1: What does Jewish law have to do with this? We are talking about the 5th Amendment and the warnings which are required by Miranda and the limitations placed on police by that andrelatedcase law. The Halakha is cited in a well known SCOTUS decision (Garrity vs New Jersey) as an example of why anyone would or should be protected from giving incriminating evidence against himself, and to give an example of a legal system in which no incriminating information obtained by any means whatsoever can be usedagainst the accused.My own view is that the authors of the Fifth Amendment meant to provide the same level of protection to us, because anything less than that is so weak as to be pointless.

Question 2: At what point was Thompkins compelled to be a witness against himself thereby violating his 5th Amendment rights. At the pointat which the inquisitors started asking him questions, whether he answered them or not, to which the answersmight incriminate him in a criminal trial. It was at that point that he became a 'witness against himself' which the Fifth Amendment prohibits the inquisitors from compelling him to be.

Question 3: What period of silence must pass before police lose the authority to question a suspect who has been legally detained? The police have no authority under the Fifth Amendment to ask the accused ANY questions for which the answersmight incriminate him in a criminal matter. No period of silence is required.
I repeat: What kind of puny 'protection' is provided by a law that only protects those already known to be guilty from admitting their guilt under oath? How are they'known tobe guilty' you might ask? Answer:by refusing to answerquestions as to whetherorthey are guilty or not.
Oh crap! Troll man has returned! Admit that you are inferior to his opinions and emotions and run as fast as you can! Run I say, RUN!
 

swine

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Mr.FiredUp wrote:
swine wrote:
JT wrote:
swine wrote:
'simmonsjoe' is right about this (although coming from me that will probably tar and feather him from now on in this site). The Fifth Amendment says: "No person...shall be compelled to be a witness against himself."


Among the things it doesn't say that it has been presumed to say, as for example in the Miranda Decision, is that no person can becompelled to give testimony against himself, or give evidence against himself, or provide damning information to the prosecution, etc., etc.

It says that no person can be compelled to act as a witnessagainst himself in any form or fashion. The merepresence of a person brought before an inquisition of any kind intended extract incriminating information from him violates the Fifth Amendment.

The Jewish Law, The Halakha, prohibits the use of any such information obtained from the accused in a trial whether obtain voluntarily on his part or not. The Halakha recognizes that people are sometimes self destructive and actagainst their own interests. Their law is meant to protect peoplefrom their ownself-destructiveness. And that is what the Fifth Amendment intendedto do, but has thus far failed to do as a result of contary precedents down through the years.

Think ofit this way: If all the Fifth Amendment was meant to do (in it's relevant parts)was to protect the guilty from acknowledging their guilt under oath, it isn't much of a protection is it? Why even bother with it?
Question 1: What does Jewish law have to do with this? We are talking about the 5th Amendment and the warnings which are required by Miranda and the limitations placed on police by that andrelatedcase law. The Halakha is cited in a well known SCOTUS decision (Garrity vs New Jersey) as an example of why anyone would or should be protected from giving incriminating evidence against himself, and to give an example of a legal system in which no incriminating information obtained by any means whatsoever can be usedagainst the accused.My own view is that the authors of the Fifth Amendment meant to provide the same level of protection to us, because anything less than that is so weak as to be pointless.

Question 2: At what point was Thompkins compelled to be a witness against himself thereby violating his 5th Amendment rights. At the pointat which the inquisitors started asking him questions, whether he answered them or not, to which the answersmight incriminate him in a criminal trial. It was at that point that he became a 'witness against himself' which the Fifth Amendment prohibits the inquisitors from compelling him to be.

Question 3: What period of silence must pass before police lose the authority to question a suspect who has been legally detained? The police have no authority under the Fifth Amendment to ask the accused ANY questions for which the answersmight incriminate him in a criminal matter. No period of silence is required.
I repeat: What kind of puny 'protection' is provided by a law that only protects those already known to be guilty from admitting their guilt under oath? How are they'known tobe guilty' you might ask? Answer:by refusing to answerquestions as to whetherorthey are guilty or not.
Oh crap! Troll man has returned! Admit that you are inferior to his opinions and emotions and run as fast as you can! Run I say, RUN!
Ok, Mr.FiredUp, define 'Troll man' so people can know who, or what, they're supposed to be running from.
 

Brimstone Baritone

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Mr.FiredUp wrote:
Oh crap! Troll man has returned! Admit that you are inferior to his opinions and emotions and run as fast as you can! Run I say, RUN!
That was uncalled for and the very definition of a troll post. Please explain how that post contributed anything to the discussion.

I may not truck with everything he says in the other threads, but this is only tangentially related to OC. Did you ever think it might be nice to get other perspectives on subjects? You can entertain a thought without accepting it, you know.
 

Brimstone Baritone

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swine wrote:
I repeat: What kind of puny 'protection' is provided by a law that only protects those already known to be guilty from admitting their guilt under oath? How are they'known tobe guilty' you might ask? Answer:by refusing to answerquestions as to whetherorthey are guilty or not.
So do you believe that the act of questioning a suspect is a violation of the 5th amendment?

It would seem that by a strict reading, the right against self incrimination only applies to statements made at trial. Under your view does this mean any evidence or confession obtained during questioning would be inadmissible as hearsay, inadmissible as a coerced confession, or do you believe the entire interview itself to be illegal regardless of the fruits thereof or the manner in which they were obtained (even voluntarily).

If it is the latter, then what basis do you have to assert that this is what the founders meant instead of the more commonly held views? Do you know of references to Jewish law in their writings, or of these views in particular no matter their origin?

On the other hand, if you were to ask me for writings proving they intended the more commonly held view then I must admit I cannot provide them. Perhaps someone else will be willing to do so if they exist.
 

TechnoWeenie

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eye95 wrote:
The most glaring example that there is no right to remain silent is that (at least in Alabama) there are two questions you must answer: What is your name? What is your address?

So, what happens when you're an escaped convict, by giving your name and address you're incriminating yourself, proving that you're not in jail, where you're supposed to be.
 

JT

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swine wrote:
The Halakha is cited in a well known SCOTUS decision (Garrity vs New Jersey) as an example of why anyone would or should be protected from giving incriminating evidence against himself, and to give an example of a legal system in which no incriminating information obtained by any means whatsoever can be usedagainst the accused.My own view is that the authors of the Fifth Amendment meant to provide the same level of protection to us, because anything less than that is so weak as to be pointless.

At the pointat which the inquisitors started asking him questions, whether he answered them or not, to which the answersmight incriminate him in a criminal trial. It was at that point that he became a 'witness against himself' which the Fifth Amendment prohibits the inquisitors from compelling him to be.

The police have no authority under the Fifth Amendment to ask the accused ANY questions for which the answersmight incriminate him in a criminal matter. No period of silence is required.
I repeat: What kind of puny 'protection' is provided by a law that only protects those already known to be guilty from admitting their guilt under oath? How are they'known tobe guilty' you might ask? Answer:by refusing to answerquestions as to whetherorthey are guilty or not.

An interesting view. In my first reading of Garrity vs New Jersey I found nothing that indicated the mere act of questioning a legally detainedsuspect was a violation of the 5th Amendment. If I understand the case, theapellants were police officers who were the subject of a state investigation of alleged misconduct and werethreatened with the loss of their jobs if theyrefused to answer questions. That was held to be coercion as the following part of the decision indicates.
The choice given petitioners was either to forfeit their jobs or to incriminate themselves. The option to lose their means of livelihood or to pay the penalty of self-incrimination is the antithesis of free choice to speak out or to remain silent. That practice, like interrogation practices we reviewed in Miranda v. Arizona, is "likely to exert such pressure upon an individual as to disable him from making a free and rational choice." We think the statements were infected by the coercion inherent in this scheme of questioning and cannot be sustained as voluntary under our prior decisions.

I found a single reference to theJewish law you refer toamong many references to case law, including Miranda. Nothing in the decision gives the the Halakha the weight that you give it.A single reference in a single SCOTUS decision hardly overides the volume of case law that holds that law enforcement does have the authority to question subjects within the limitations that have been set forth by law. In fact, the Garrity case gave rise to a warningsimilar to the Miranda warning. Could you please cite the part of the decision which says that the act of questioning the police officers was the 5th Amendmentviolation?
 

eye95

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mcdonalk wrote:
swine wrote:
I repeat: What kind of puny 'protection' is provided by a law that only protects those already known to be guilty from admitting their guilt under oath? How are they'known tobe guilty' you might ask? Answer:by refusing to answerquestions as to whetherorthey are guilty or not.
So do you believe that the act of questioning a suspect is a violation of the 5th amendment?

It would seem that by a strict reading, the right against self incrimination only applies to statements made at trial. Under your view does this mean any evidence or confession obtained during questioning would be inadmissible as hearsay, inadmissible as a coerced confession, or do you believe the entire interview itself to be illegal regardless of the fruits thereof or the manner in which they were obtained (even voluntarily).

If it is the latter, then what basis do you have to assert that this is what the founders meant instead of the more commonly held views? Do you know of references to Jewish law in their writings, or of these views in particular no matter their origin?

On the other hand, if you were to ask me for writings proving they intended the more commonly held view then I must admit I cannot provide them. Perhaps someone else will be willing to do so if they exist.
Self-incrimination can happen at any time. However, it is not the questioning that constitutes self-incrimination or compulsion to self-incriminate. That is the logical mistake that Sotomayor and her supporters are making.

A suspect has two main strategies to avoid self-incrimination during questioning. He can remain silent (that is a strategy, not a right), or he can announce his intent not to talk. These actions don't necessarily stop the questioning. What stops questioning is the request for counsel.

Continuing to question interferes not with the right to avoid self-incrimination, but with the right to counsel. Each question requires that the suspect make his own decision, without the requested counsel, to answer or not.
 
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