DanM
Regular Member
imported post
CoonDog wrote:
Private property used for non-public activity (e.g. a residence): yes. Private property used for public activity (e.g. a business): no. An owner of the latter may own the property, but he does not own hiscustomers or hisemployees. As long as they are conducting themselves lawfully and peaceably, such an owner is not ethically justified to dictate things at whim to those who are on his property in the course of the mere economic exchange that all are engaged in. Put another, more succinct way: consent toeconomic exchange does not automatically confer any powers beyond that sphere, for any of the parties.
As I've mentioned before, some states' legislators grasp this ethical principle and push for rightful protections for customers' and employees' fundamental rights. A recent example of this is the airline passengers' "bill of rights". No longer can an airline be "the sole and final arbiter of what is allowed" on their property (the airplane) and keep customers or employees held in a delayed airplane on the ground for more than a couple of hours. Another example closer to home is here in Michigan, proposed legislation to prohibit employers frombeing"the sole and final arbiter of what is allowed" on their property andbanning their employees from lawfully storing firearms in employees' vehicles parked on the employer's property.
But, according to your view that property owners should be"the sole and final arbiter of who or what is allowed on the property", we would not have these fundamental protections for our individual rights from the purely irrelevant, unnecessary, and dictatorial whims of the property owners. If you do not see the folly of your view, you should give it more thought.
CoonDog wrote:
Imo, the sole and final arbiter of who or what is allowed on the property ought to fall to one person only: the property owner.
Private property used for non-public activity (e.g. a residence): yes. Private property used for public activity (e.g. a business): no. An owner of the latter may own the property, but he does not own hiscustomers or hisemployees. As long as they are conducting themselves lawfully and peaceably, such an owner is not ethically justified to dictate things at whim to those who are on his property in the course of the mere economic exchange that all are engaged in. Put another, more succinct way: consent toeconomic exchange does not automatically confer any powers beyond that sphere, for any of the parties.
As I've mentioned before, some states' legislators grasp this ethical principle and push for rightful protections for customers' and employees' fundamental rights. A recent example of this is the airline passengers' "bill of rights". No longer can an airline be "the sole and final arbiter of what is allowed" on their property (the airplane) and keep customers or employees held in a delayed airplane on the ground for more than a couple of hours. Another example closer to home is here in Michigan, proposed legislation to prohibit employers frombeing"the sole and final arbiter of what is allowed" on their property andbanning their employees from lawfully storing firearms in employees' vehicles parked on the employer's property.
But, according to your view that property owners should be"the sole and final arbiter of who or what is allowed on the property", we would not have these fundamental protections for our individual rights from the purely irrelevant, unnecessary, and dictatorial whims of the property owners. If you do not see the folly of your view, you should give it more thought.