davidmcbeth
Banned
Correlation does not imply causation.
Yup, and all that post war stuff got into the guberment is your master via economic slavery
Correlation does not imply causation.
WW2 ended May 8, 1945, and there is no exact date in the mid 40's the depression ended. Like I said in a previous post, when my grandfather returned home from Europe he was approved for a house loan and built his own house. Would that of happened before the war? No, so our economy must have been a lot better meaning the depression was over.
Fact: it's impossible to end a depression, or to improve an economy, by increasing redistribution of wealth to nonproductive sectors.
Fact: while defense spending may (or may not) be necessary, to whatever extent it goes beyond that demanded by normal market conditions it is definitionally non-value-adding and therefore effectively nonproductive.
Therefore, it is impossible for WWII to have ended the depression. QED.
Remember, correlation does not imply causation.
If you want to look at it another way, consider how many nations have been driven to bankruptcy by their wars. In fact, the only way to profit from war at all is to plunder from your defeated foes.
Ok maybe not of Hitler himself but of Hitler's fascism.
In a letter to Hitler from FDR....."should you agree to a solution in this peaceful manner I am convinced that hundreds of millions throughout the world would recognize your action as an outstanding historic service to all humanity.
It was something he was striving for here too.
The GI Bill (passed in 1944) with the $0 down payment and low interest loans was likely more responsible for your Grandfather getting a home loan than any "economic recovery".
Roosevelt was supplying the British when Germany and the Soviet Union were still allies.Ok maybe not of Hitler himself but of Hitler's fascism.
In a letter to Hitler from FDR....."should you agree to a solution in this peaceful manner I am convinced that hundreds of millions throughout the world would recognize your action as an outstanding historic service to all humanity.
It was something he was striving for here too.
WW2 ended May 8, 1945, and there is no exact date in the mid 40's the depression ended. Like I said in a previous post, when my grandfather returned home from Europe he was approved for a house loan and built his own house. Would that of happened before the war? No, so our economy must have been a lot better meaning the depression was over.
That would be September 2, 1945.
Actually we are both wrong, August 15, 1945. I posted the date Germany surrendered.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World_War_II
The GI Bill (passed in 1944) with the $0 down payment and low interest loans was likely more responsible for your Grandfather getting a home loan than any "economic recovery".
No, the end of WWII was as I stated; September 2, 1945. That was when the formal surrender document was signed by the remaining warring parties. August 15 was when Japan agreed to the American terms and hostilities ceased. But the actual end of the war was September 2.
+1
One cannot possibly have an economic recovery by manufacturing vast amounts of war materiel.
you can have pne when you're the only power with an untouched industrial base and an entire planet of rubble that wants financing and new goods to replace those destroyed....
the broken window fallacy is not a fallacy to the guy getting the check to replace the window...
Even by the simple measure of GDP, the US economy actually contracted after 1945...not the signs of a recovery by any means.
http://www.usgovernmentspending.com...011mcn__US_Gross_Domestic_Product_GDP_History
you can have pne when you're the only power with an untouched industrial base and an entire planet of rubble that wants financing and new goods to replace those destroyed....
No, the end of WWII was as I stated; September 2, 1945. That was when the formal surrender document was signed by the remaining warring parties. August 15 was when Japan agreed to the American terms and hostilities ceased. But the actual end of the war was September 2.
Bureaucratic hostilities if you will. There are wars and then there are "wars."Japan has acknowledged, sort of. Also, Russian controls some of the northern islands of Japanese island chain, the Kuril Islands. This territorial dispute technically means that Japan and Russia are still at war, WWII, that is.
If Japan did not agree until the 15th, then why would they sign anything? I posted a link, where is one backing what you are saying?
Weren't some of the treaties ending WWII signed in the 90s? IIRC, Germany was technically still "occupied" until then.