SNIP What about Case Law? Is that included in the term "Common Law?"
Based on my understanding, yes and no.
For all practical purposes, with regard to any bills or statutes today, yes.
Here is my understanding:
Think back to the Dark Ages and Middle Ages. Lotsa people in England didn't read--
couldn't read. Other countries too, but lets talk about England. So, far enough back, you have lots of local unwritten law otherwise known as custom, the common law, the law of the land. Certainly, the king's judges didn't start getting around on circuit until Henry II in the mid-1100's.
So, as time went on judges started writing down the common law in their written opinion in order to support or explain their decision.
So, today, most the common law that we know of is found written down in court opinions. But, not all. Magna Carta recorded some. And, some legal commentators like Coke and probably Blackstone wrote some down. Also, some can be found in the writings of defendants during and after trial, and some in transcripts of trials or written accounts of trials by attendees.
For example, Thomas More, when sentence was about to be passed upon him for high treason, interrupted the judges to say, "My Lords, when I practiced law the manner was to ask the prisoner if he had anything to say before sentence was passed." The statement is not a part of that court's opinion, but the fact that a former Chancellor of England cited the practice, and the fact that the court then allowed him to comment tells us that letting the prisoner comment was indeed part of the common law, or maybe established procedure.
Another example of common law not written down in court opinions, there was a huge political flap in New York colony, shortly after the Dutch lost it to England, I think. It involved the governor and his council. They examined a number of witnesses on compulsory oath to testify essentially against themselves. Up to this point, there is not a lot written down about the right against self-incrimination in New York's colonial history. But, the fact that witnesses raised a stink and petitioned the Privy Council (the king's highest council) precisely about being compelled to testify against themselves, and the fact that the Privy Council told the governor to knock it off, and the fact that the governor and his council lost no time distancing themselves from the accusation tells us that the right against self-incrimination was a part of the common law in New York colony under Britain.
So, yes and no. No, because there is common law recorded outside of court opinions, but I suspect courts are not bound to follow something not written in court opinions, meaning I kinda think
stare decisis (faith to precedent) would be a bit harder to force a judge to follow. And, it could take some real exhaustive scholarship to convince a perhaps prejudiced judge to accept something from a scholar or witness account written in 1229AD.