Citizen
Founder's Club Member
Aaah because maybe tasers are less likely to cause death or serious bodily harm. I believe that is part of the purpose in their use.
Why would they be less likely to cause death or serious bodily injury in any statistically meaningful way if police were not using excessive force with their other weapons between Tenn v Garner and tasers?
Primus is the one who advanced the argument. Either he way overstated things in his self-serving defense of tasers, or he really meant they actually do reduce the number of deaths and injuries significantly. Human nature didn't change in the last forty years. Given the number of police physical abuse cases we're seeing today, I know which of those two options I see as most likely.
Good cops, excepted, this is a little like the old argument that police get lots more training today that reduces rights violations and excessive force. Sounds good and laudable on the surface. Until one asks himself, "Oh? What does that say about police in the last forty years prior to all this "more training"? And, really? Given the amount of excessive force and rights abuses visible in the media--which is at a terrible level--what does that say about police in the last forty years prior to all the "more training"? You're saying it was even worse than the horrible level of excessive force and rights abuses we're seeing today? And, what does it say about the number of cops who need "training" in order to not be excessive or abuse rights (past and present)?"
Stop insulting me with your shallow arguments.
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